Hi, I've been reading through the forums and have seen similar questions mainly regarding CGT, but this question isn't mainly focused on CGT, apologies if this has been answered before, i just couldn't seem to find the answer directly related to what i would like to know.
So here's the story from the beginning, i bought a house before i met my wife, and let it out. i then met my now wife and after a few years of being together we asked the tenant to move out and we moved in and lived there for 18 months/ 2years. we then moved out of my property and bought a bigger house, had kids, then got married, keeping the other property as solely owned by me. the tenants pay the rent to me (£800 per month), and i pay the mortgage on it, i am a 40% tax rate payer, my wife earns nothing. i read recently about the tax changes and from April 2016 we can no longer offset the mortgage interest from the profit made on second properties. So i am considering what to do as it will cost me more and more going forward and i think we should take advantage of my wife's 11k unused tax allowance.
so from what i've read, i think i can put 99% of the property into my wifes name and let her be paid the rent and show that as her income (therefore not paying any tax as it falls under 11k a year), if i want to do this who should i contact? and how will that effect CGT going forward?
only thing im wondering is (not that im planning on getting divorced anytime soon/at all), as this is a non-martial asset, if i left it as it is (with me the sole owner) and got divorced would it be mine or would it be split? and if i transferred 99% of it to her name, would it be mine or would it be 99% hers?
Thanks for your time guys!
So here's the story from the beginning, i bought a house before i met my wife, and let it out. i then met my now wife and after a few years of being together we asked the tenant to move out and we moved in and lived there for 18 months/ 2years. we then moved out of my property and bought a bigger house, had kids, then got married, keeping the other property as solely owned by me. the tenants pay the rent to me (£800 per month), and i pay the mortgage on it, i am a 40% tax rate payer, my wife earns nothing. i read recently about the tax changes and from April 2016 we can no longer offset the mortgage interest from the profit made on second properties. So i am considering what to do as it will cost me more and more going forward and i think we should take advantage of my wife's 11k unused tax allowance.
so from what i've read, i think i can put 99% of the property into my wifes name and let her be paid the rent and show that as her income (therefore not paying any tax as it falls under 11k a year), if i want to do this who should i contact? and how will that effect CGT going forward?
only thing im wondering is (not that im planning on getting divorced anytime soon/at all), as this is a non-martial asset, if i left it as it is (with me the sole owner) and got divorced would it be mine or would it be split? and if i transferred 99% of it to her name, would it be mine or would it be 99% hers?
Thanks for your time guys!
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