If a husband and wife jointly own a buy to let property with both their names on the mortgage, say they wanted to transfer the mortgage solely into just the wives name, would I be correct in saying the half of the mortgage transferred over would be liable to the SDLT rates for a second home?
For example, if the mortgage was £110,000, then half of that = £55,000 is taxable @ 3%, = £1650...
How does this help free up property for first time buyers?
For example, if the mortgage was £110,000, then half of that = £55,000 is taxable @ 3%, = £1650...
How does this help free up property for first time buyers?
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