Dear all,
Hoping you can help me out here.
Lets assume I have a rental property worth £100k, and a main residence worth £200k. Neither property currently has a mortgage.
I need to borrow £60k for property related expenses. I can borrow on the rental property at 4% and the main residence at 2%.
I earn £6,000 per annum on the rental property and my tax off-settable expenses are £1,000 per annum so net of £5,000.
On the BTL, with a mortgage of 60k, my interest charge is £2,400 and so my net, after interest deduction is £2,600.
On the residential £60k mortgage, my interest charge is £1,200 and so my net, after interest deduction is £3,800.
So although I do not have a ‘tax shield’ in the form of interest cost of £1,200 (assuming here I can’t offset residential mortgage against BTL property for tax reasons) this is double the cost of the ‘tax shield’ on the BTL. So here are the numbers:
Borrow on BTL and make, after tax:
@20% : £2,600 - £520 = £2,080
@40% : £2,600 - £1,040 = £1,560
@45% : £2,600 - £1,170 = £1,430
Borrow and Residential and make, after tax:
@20% : £3,800 - £760 = £3,040
@40% : £3,800 - £1,520 = £2,280
@45% : £3,800 - £1,710 = £2,090
In each case, I make more, after tax, because the interest rate on my residential mortgage is double the rate on my buy to let.
Therefore I think it makes absolutely no sense to borrow money against your BTL, just for the fact it can be offset against tax, because, in general, BTL rates are much higher than residential rates. If the two were equal, or if BTL rates were below residential rates, then the argument is valid for tax reasons.
Additionally, interest is a regular, monthly outgoing, payable no matter whether the property is occupied, habitable, or even standing. Tax, on the other hand is payable only on income earned, after expenses.
Given the above, why is it common wisdom that mortgages on BTL’s should be maxed out?
Sure, there is an argument you can use this £60k and speculate on the stock market or foreign exchange or some other similar risky, high return investment and, therefore your interest cost is tax deductible. But lets face it, how many people would borrow to invest, or more to the point, speculate on an asset that is not property related and/or does not pay a regular income? For a conservative investor, this methodology makes no sense!
What are others opinions on this?
Hoping you can help me out here.
Lets assume I have a rental property worth £100k, and a main residence worth £200k. Neither property currently has a mortgage.
I need to borrow £60k for property related expenses. I can borrow on the rental property at 4% and the main residence at 2%.
I earn £6,000 per annum on the rental property and my tax off-settable expenses are £1,000 per annum so net of £5,000.
On the BTL, with a mortgage of 60k, my interest charge is £2,400 and so my net, after interest deduction is £2,600.
On the residential £60k mortgage, my interest charge is £1,200 and so my net, after interest deduction is £3,800.
So although I do not have a ‘tax shield’ in the form of interest cost of £1,200 (assuming here I can’t offset residential mortgage against BTL property for tax reasons) this is double the cost of the ‘tax shield’ on the BTL. So here are the numbers:
Borrow on BTL and make, after tax:
@20% : £2,600 - £520 = £2,080
@40% : £2,600 - £1,040 = £1,560
@45% : £2,600 - £1,170 = £1,430
Borrow and Residential and make, after tax:
@20% : £3,800 - £760 = £3,040
@40% : £3,800 - £1,520 = £2,280
@45% : £3,800 - £1,710 = £2,090
In each case, I make more, after tax, because the interest rate on my residential mortgage is double the rate on my buy to let.
Therefore I think it makes absolutely no sense to borrow money against your BTL, just for the fact it can be offset against tax, because, in general, BTL rates are much higher than residential rates. If the two were equal, or if BTL rates were below residential rates, then the argument is valid for tax reasons.
Additionally, interest is a regular, monthly outgoing, payable no matter whether the property is occupied, habitable, or even standing. Tax, on the other hand is payable only on income earned, after expenses.
Given the above, why is it common wisdom that mortgages on BTL’s should be maxed out?
Sure, there is an argument you can use this £60k and speculate on the stock market or foreign exchange or some other similar risky, high return investment and, therefore your interest cost is tax deductible. But lets face it, how many people would borrow to invest, or more to the point, speculate on an asset that is not property related and/or does not pay a regular income? For a conservative investor, this methodology makes no sense!
What are others opinions on this?
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