Hi All,
First time post, and very similar to a recent thread on CGT (JayDs), but in an effort to not highjack someone elses thread and cause confusion I thought it best to start afresh.
My scenario is as follows - we moved from our old house in Kent to upgrade to a larger home for myself, partner and two young children about 6mnths ago. The new mortgage is Offset so the intention had been to allow us to do some work to the old house, sell and then immediately deposit the gain in the bank to offset the mortgage.
As you can guess the current property downturn (esp in Kent) means that we've struggled to sell and I'm looking at rental as an option as the rental market is booming in the area, but sales are not.
The house is owned outright and was purchased for 90K back in about '97 (currently worth ~180K or so and all in my name). I'm higher rate taxpayer and my partner currently has zero income but has savings.
From what I understand (reading other threads), we could draw up an agreement where she received the full rental income i.e. she would pay very little tax as we'd expect this to be around £800/mnth pre expenses - so that's great.
However WRT CGT, would we be better off in the long term if I sold her 50% of the house now for the market value ie £90K (I would expect HMRC to ask questions if it was sold for less than current value) in respect of her paying 18% CGT on eventual sale as opposed to 28%.
We both lived in the house for the 13 yrs or so we had it and to be honest the rental route wasn't my original intention..... but the best laid plans of mice and men and all that!
I'm thinking that if we went the rental route we're likely to either hold onto it for about 3yrs (in which case I'd guess at a sale value of £225K assuming things recover) or hold for the long term and 10yrs in which case it's anyone's guess.
Assuming the above scenario how is CGT eventually calculated on the 50:50 split and from what dates? Is it indeed worth splitting the house or should I keep in my name?
Many thanks!
First time post, and very similar to a recent thread on CGT (JayDs), but in an effort to not highjack someone elses thread and cause confusion I thought it best to start afresh.
My scenario is as follows - we moved from our old house in Kent to upgrade to a larger home for myself, partner and two young children about 6mnths ago. The new mortgage is Offset so the intention had been to allow us to do some work to the old house, sell and then immediately deposit the gain in the bank to offset the mortgage.
As you can guess the current property downturn (esp in Kent) means that we've struggled to sell and I'm looking at rental as an option as the rental market is booming in the area, but sales are not.
The house is owned outright and was purchased for 90K back in about '97 (currently worth ~180K or so and all in my name). I'm higher rate taxpayer and my partner currently has zero income but has savings.
From what I understand (reading other threads), we could draw up an agreement where she received the full rental income i.e. she would pay very little tax as we'd expect this to be around £800/mnth pre expenses - so that's great.
However WRT CGT, would we be better off in the long term if I sold her 50% of the house now for the market value ie £90K (I would expect HMRC to ask questions if it was sold for less than current value) in respect of her paying 18% CGT on eventual sale as opposed to 28%.
We both lived in the house for the 13 yrs or so we had it and to be honest the rental route wasn't my original intention..... but the best laid plans of mice and men and all that!
I'm thinking that if we went the rental route we're likely to either hold onto it for about 3yrs (in which case I'd guess at a sale value of £225K assuming things recover) or hold for the long term and 10yrs in which case it's anyone's guess.
Assuming the above scenario how is CGT eventually calculated on the 50:50 split and from what dates? Is it indeed worth splitting the house or should I keep in my name?
Many thanks!
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