I hope you can help me understand the below dispute.
Here’s the scenario:
A 4 bedroom house has joint-ownership between two friends who needed to buy together to get onto the property ladder.
Of the 4 rooms, each owner/landlord obliviously lives in what you could call their agreed/chosen room. The two spare rooms are rented out to lodgers and the rent is split 50/50.
Both landloards/owners keep up monthly payments to cover all bills, this is split 50/50.
The twist:
One landloard/owner wants to move out ( retain ½ ownership in the property by continuing the mortgagee/bill payments + split in repairs & maintenance) but needs to rent the room that they’ve lived in from the beginning out to a tenant, in order to financially cover the cost of renting/living elsewhere. For example – they want to rent the room they’ve lived in for £300/month.
Assuming that the remaining landlord/owner who remains in his/her own chosen room (who continues to benefit from this room entirely) accepts this change in ‘occupancy’ (absolute agreement is a must and both parties need to be content with the choice) the big question is:
Who should receive the rent from this room?
Should it go 100% to the owner who is moving out of the room that they have lived in since the start, as they are continuing to keep up all payments (mortgage/bills), with the other owner continuing to 100% occupy their chosen room.
Or should the rent be split between both home owners based on the fact that the house is owned equally by both of them, and although the owner who is moving out has lived in that room since the beginning, as it will no longer be seen as ‘their room,’ then any rent income should be split down the middle.
Really interested in people’s opinions here!
Many Thanks
Here’s the scenario:
A 4 bedroom house has joint-ownership between two friends who needed to buy together to get onto the property ladder.
Of the 4 rooms, each owner/landlord obliviously lives in what you could call their agreed/chosen room. The two spare rooms are rented out to lodgers and the rent is split 50/50.
Both landloards/owners keep up monthly payments to cover all bills, this is split 50/50.
The twist:
One landloard/owner wants to move out ( retain ½ ownership in the property by continuing the mortgagee/bill payments + split in repairs & maintenance) but needs to rent the room that they’ve lived in from the beginning out to a tenant, in order to financially cover the cost of renting/living elsewhere. For example – they want to rent the room they’ve lived in for £300/month.
Assuming that the remaining landlord/owner who remains in his/her own chosen room (who continues to benefit from this room entirely) accepts this change in ‘occupancy’ (absolute agreement is a must and both parties need to be content with the choice) the big question is:
Who should receive the rent from this room?
Should it go 100% to the owner who is moving out of the room that they have lived in since the start, as they are continuing to keep up all payments (mortgage/bills), with the other owner continuing to 100% occupy their chosen room.
Or should the rent be split between both home owners based on the fact that the house is owned equally by both of them, and although the owner who is moving out has lived in that room since the beginning, as it will no longer be seen as ‘their room,’ then any rent income should be split down the middle.
Really interested in people’s opinions here!
Many Thanks
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