Person A and Person B, two siblings, are unmortgaged owners of a freehold property as tenants-in-common.
Person A has permission from Person B to let the property. The tenants sign an agreement with Person A, to whom they pay rent. Person A also addresses all maintenance issues. The contract is perfunctory, and matters are addressed on a case-by-case basis between LL and tenant by phone or email.
Person A is able to set the level of the rent, which is lower than person B might like. Person A then sends 50% of the net proceeds to Person B each month.
I am one of the tenants. From my perspective, Person B has had no involvement in the property as landlord, and also does not do anything as joint freeholder, either. For example, the neighbours told me that when they had an extension built and needed to send round surveyors to inspect the party wall, they found it very difficult to get assent from Person B, who initially did not respond and then just referred them back to person A.
Just motivated by one of the other threads here, I was wondering, could person B also be said to be my landlord? My understanding was that no, they could not. They have given permission to Person A to be the landlord, but they do not share that role themselves. But since they receive half the rent, does that change it?
Person A has permission from Person B to let the property. The tenants sign an agreement with Person A, to whom they pay rent. Person A also addresses all maintenance issues. The contract is perfunctory, and matters are addressed on a case-by-case basis between LL and tenant by phone or email.
Person A is able to set the level of the rent, which is lower than person B might like. Person A then sends 50% of the net proceeds to Person B each month.
I am one of the tenants. From my perspective, Person B has had no involvement in the property as landlord, and also does not do anything as joint freeholder, either. For example, the neighbours told me that when they had an extension built and needed to send round surveyors to inspect the party wall, they found it very difficult to get assent from Person B, who initially did not respond and then just referred them back to person A.
Just motivated by one of the other threads here, I was wondering, could person B also be said to be my landlord? My understanding was that no, they could not. They have given permission to Person A to be the landlord, but they do not share that role themselves. But since they receive half the rent, does that change it?
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