I asked my postie this morning about undelivered mail and she said Royal Mail has a duty to return to sender undelivered mail with a return address on it, All dead mail with No return address ends up at a huge office in Belfast.
https://www.liverpoolecho.co.uk/news...crets-16185786
https://personal.help.royalmail.com/...one-elses-mail
Landlord opening ex-tenant's post
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Originally posted by alex1 View Post
There’s no conflict. Ownership of the letter is independent of ownership of the copyright of the letter. It’s no different to how I can own a book without owning the copyright of the book.
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Originally posted by Jon66 View PostYes am aware of the postal rule. Interesting what you say because the copyright of such a letter belongs to the writer. Conflicts as usual!
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Originally posted by Berlingogirl View PostIt's not illegal to open somebody else's post that has been delivered to your property.
It's a trespass to goods (Torts (Interference with Goods) Act 1977)
If you throw the letters away, use the contents or damage the contents, it's probably conversion, which is a form of theft.
It's probably not automatically interference with the post (which is what people normally suggest it is) once the item has been delivered, but depending on why you are opening it, it could become an offence under that act.
For example, opening someone else's mail hoping to find out who they owe money to or where they might be contacted is probably a separate offence.
No one ever gets charged with it (in the same way no one gets done for speeding at 71 mph on a motorway).
But that doesn't mean it's lawful.
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Originally posted by hybrice View Post
The fact that you can justify it to yourself, or you personally don't know anyone who has been "done" for it, doesn't make it right or legal. And you're making a rather lofty argument to vindicate someone cracking open a letter not addressed to them and extorting the ex-tenant with the contents...
And, no, I'm not arguing that's it's ok to extort the ex-tenant.
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Originally posted by Lawcruncher View PostI was hoping no one would ask that! I have to go back a long time to when I learned it. I did do some Googling hoping to find some authority, but failed to do so.
I have a feeling it's never been decided, hence the need for the Postal Rule for contracts.
But I have no authority for that either.
When you think about it the point of posting is a logical moment to choose because it achieves certainty and is the moment when the sender loses control of the letter. If it depends on the addressee actually getting it into his possession he would have no right to claim it if it ends up in someone else's possession.
In any event, the question is not relevant to this thread because the letter either belongs to the sender or the addressee. If a letter comes into a third party's hands the third party has no rights over it.
If those arguing that there are circumstances in which it is legitimate to open a tenant's mail are consistent they will concede that a tenant has the same right to open any mail addressed to his landlord which lands on his doormat.
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Originally posted by jpkeates View PostOther than the postal rule, could you point me at a source to support this?
When you think about it the point of posting is a logical moment to choose because it achieves certainty and is the moment when the sender loses control of the letter. If it depends on the addressee actually getting it into his possession he would have no right to claim it if it ends up in someone else's possession.
In any event, the question is not relevant to this thread because the letter either belongs to the sender or the addressee. If a letter comes into a third party's hands the third party has no rights over it.
If those arguing that there are circumstances in which it is legitimate to open a tenant's mail are consistent they will concede that a tenant has the same right to open any mail addressed to his landlord which lands on his doormat.
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Originally posted by pebblepebble View PostMy friend has recently had something delivered for the previous owners of her property and they moved 6 years ago.
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Originally posted by Lawcruncher View PostIt is established law that a letter belongs to the addressee as soon as it is posted.
This isn't particularly relevant to this thread, it's been something that's fascinated since it was a discussion while I was studying law that was inconclusive.
That was a while ago, but it's bothered me off and on ever since.
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As a matter of interest how long it it acceptable to be expected to return to sender? When I moved here I did it for 6 months then everything that came after that went into the bin. They did have a postal divert (I assume for 6 months as we started to get more post after that time) but some things slip through. My friend has recently had something delivered for the previous owners of her property and they moved 6 years ago.
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Originally posted by Obiter View PostIt is sent to the National Returns Centre only if efforts to deliver it have failed, and even then if the NRC become aware of the correct address they will deliver it.
I made some enquiries at the time and discovered that the forwarding of readdressed mail had only ever been a discretionary thing and rarely, if ever, happens now. The obvious intention is to encourage people to use their expensive official redirect service (£34 per quarter for one person).
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Yes am aware of the postal rule. Interesting what you say because the copyright of such a letter belongs to the writer. Conflicts as usual!
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Originally posted by Jon66 View PostI don't think letters belong to the recipient, which is such a sweeping statement and taken literally means anyone in receipt is the owner. Surely letters belong to the sender until received by the addressed person.
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Originally posted by Obiter View PostSome people should learn more respect for private property.
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