Do Multiple owners of a Property All need to sign to lease to a tenant

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    Do Multiple owners of a Property All need to sign to lease to a tenant

    I have come across a bit of an anomaly. My father-in-law has rented a property that he jointly owns with his daughters out to a weekly tenant. His daughters are over the age of 18 and had no involvement in this. Is the lease binding?

    #2
    Assuming the tenancy is not for a term exceeding three years, the agreement did not need to be in writing. Since that is the case it has to follow that an agreement signed by only one of multiple owners is valid.

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      #3
      Sorry I forgot to add that this is registered as a fair rent. Does that have any bearing?

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        #4
        The lease is binding. Whether father in law owes some of the rent received (minus expenses) to the daughters depends on the arrangement between them (and has practical implications - GROB, inheritance tax, income tax etc).

        How did this property come to be jointly owned? Is it possible that you have an eye on the family money of your spouse - where that money was gifted by your father in law -- in which case BACK OFF ......

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          #5
          Originally posted by sathunter View Post
          Sorry I forgot to add that this is registered as a fair rent. Does that have any bearing?
          No it does not.

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            #6
            Originally posted by Lawcruncher View Post
            No it does not.
            It doesn't change the answer to the question, but if it's in England or Wales, it would indicate that the lease has been ongoing for decades.
            It might not always have been in the same property, but it would have started with the tenant or the tenant's relations before 1989.
            When I post, I am expressing an opinion - feel free to disagree, I have been wrong before.
            Please don't act on my suggestions without checking with a grown-up (ideally some kind of expert).

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