Hi, would appreciate if someone could explain a few things to me.
I am a tenant in England who is coming to the end of a 12-month AST. I decided to renew and sign another 12-month AST that contained a 6 month break clause. The start date of this new contract has not yet come round (it starts next week)
A week after I signed, the landlord informed the agent he's actually planning to sell the property and will be putting the property up for sale at the end of the month.
I then asked the agency if we could instead go periodic on the old AST instead, so the landlord can get rid of me if he ends up selling it and I can also decide to leave if it gets too disruptive.
The agency told me I couldn't continue the contract on a rolling basis as I've signed a new AST, but the landlord agreed to change the break clause on the new AST to 2 months. They've since sent me an amendment to sign for the new AST, which states either me or the landlord can give 2 months notice at any point for me to leave.
Now I'm thoroughly confused? Is an renewed AST with a break clause for both tenant and landlord to give 2 months notice at any point a valid AST? I thought there was a minimum 6 month period in which I'm entitled to stay? Or does this only apply for the very first AST I signed a year ago?
Sucks because it now looks like I have to pay a renewal fee for a AST that's more or less a periodic tenancy (minus the 2 months notice I have to give instead of 1). Got caught out because I was only made aware of the intent to sell after I signed the new contract.
Why can't we ditch the new contract we signed and return to a periodic period tenancy under the old one if the old contact term hasn't ended yet?
Thanks
I am a tenant in England who is coming to the end of a 12-month AST. I decided to renew and sign another 12-month AST that contained a 6 month break clause. The start date of this new contract has not yet come round (it starts next week)
A week after I signed, the landlord informed the agent he's actually planning to sell the property and will be putting the property up for sale at the end of the month.
I then asked the agency if we could instead go periodic on the old AST instead, so the landlord can get rid of me if he ends up selling it and I can also decide to leave if it gets too disruptive.
The agency told me I couldn't continue the contract on a rolling basis as I've signed a new AST, but the landlord agreed to change the break clause on the new AST to 2 months. They've since sent me an amendment to sign for the new AST, which states either me or the landlord can give 2 months notice at any point for me to leave.
Now I'm thoroughly confused? Is an renewed AST with a break clause for both tenant and landlord to give 2 months notice at any point a valid AST? I thought there was a minimum 6 month period in which I'm entitled to stay? Or does this only apply for the very first AST I signed a year ago?
Sucks because it now looks like I have to pay a renewal fee for a AST that's more or less a periodic tenancy (minus the 2 months notice I have to give instead of 1). Got caught out because I was only made aware of the intent to sell after I signed the new contract.
Why can't we ditch the new contract we signed and return to a periodic period tenancy under the old one if the old contact term hasn't ended yet?
Thanks
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