Hi
I own a lease flat which has an under lease granted from it. The underlease notes that rent is payable but I am trying to understand if this is to me or to the freeholder.
More worryingly and what I need advice on is that the underlease has the same term bar the last ten days (999) years starting at the same date as the lease from which it was granted (my lease). Does this mean that the underlease is effectively a transfer of the lease from which it was granted ?
Thanks
I own a lease flat which has an under lease granted from it. The underlease notes that rent is payable but I am trying to understand if this is to me or to the freeholder.
More worryingly and what I need advice on is that the underlease has the same term bar the last ten days (999) years starting at the same date as the lease from which it was granted (my lease). Does this mean that the underlease is effectively a transfer of the lease from which it was granted ?
Thanks
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