Hi,
In 1999 my wife and I bought the lease of the downstairs flat in a two flat converted house, there were 75 years left on the lease. Year later the leaseholder of the flat upstairs put his flat on the market, so we also bought their lease too, we became the leaseholders of both flats. As the Freeholder had been missing for many hears, we applied to the Court for a Vesting order to buy the Freehold, this was granted, we paid the Court the market value of the freehold, and became the freeholders as well as the leaseholders of this property.
The advise we received by the solicitors acting for us at the time, was that unless we applied for a Reversion, the property would not become automatically into a freehold property as it once was, but it would remain with a Freehold and two leases.
I have read opinions in another forum that this is not possible, and that when a Freehold and leasehold belongs to the same people, the leases would immediately cease to exist. Is this correct?, We are not sure as we have obtained documents from the Land Registry showing that we are currently the owners of the Freehold, and also the leaseholders of both leases.
Would appreciate your opinions.
Best regards
Alt.
In 1999 my wife and I bought the lease of the downstairs flat in a two flat converted house, there were 75 years left on the lease. Year later the leaseholder of the flat upstairs put his flat on the market, so we also bought their lease too, we became the leaseholders of both flats. As the Freeholder had been missing for many hears, we applied to the Court for a Vesting order to buy the Freehold, this was granted, we paid the Court the market value of the freehold, and became the freeholders as well as the leaseholders of this property.
The advise we received by the solicitors acting for us at the time, was that unless we applied for a Reversion, the property would not become automatically into a freehold property as it once was, but it would remain with a Freehold and two leases.
I have read opinions in another forum that this is not possible, and that when a Freehold and leasehold belongs to the same people, the leases would immediately cease to exist. Is this correct?, We are not sure as we have obtained documents from the Land Registry showing that we are currently the owners of the Freehold, and also the leaseholders of both leases.
Would appreciate your opinions.
Best regards
Alt.
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