I am the nominated Director of an RTM company formed by the 3 leaseholders about 3 years ago.
One of the leaseholders and RTM member had their property re possessed by the bank last year. The leaseholder was in service charge arrears and I wrote to the bank to advise them as I knew the flat was going to auction.
I subsequently received a payment by transfer to the service charge account. A few weeks later I received another payment for the same amount.
I have written to the bank 3 times now to advise them and had no response.
In order to account for the money, I have entered the amount as a liability on the RTM year end accounts.
The property has a new leaseholder who also became an RTM member.
At this year's AGM I went through the accounts and advised of the overpayment and my intention to keep trying to contact the bank.
The new leaseholder is now selling the flat and is claiming that the overpayment belongs to him and wants the money reimbursed to him.
He is refusing to pay the second part of his service charge on the basis of the overpayment.
I maintain that the RTM may still have a liability to reimburse the bank once they discover their error.
Can anyone help clarify the position regarding the overpaid amount?
One of the leaseholders and RTM member had their property re possessed by the bank last year. The leaseholder was in service charge arrears and I wrote to the bank to advise them as I knew the flat was going to auction.
I subsequently received a payment by transfer to the service charge account. A few weeks later I received another payment for the same amount.
I have written to the bank 3 times now to advise them and had no response.
In order to account for the money, I have entered the amount as a liability on the RTM year end accounts.
The property has a new leaseholder who also became an RTM member.
At this year's AGM I went through the accounts and advised of the overpayment and my intention to keep trying to contact the bank.
The new leaseholder is now selling the flat and is claiming that the overpayment belongs to him and wants the money reimbursed to him.
He is refusing to pay the second part of his service charge on the basis of the overpayment.
I maintain that the RTM may still have a liability to reimburse the bank once they discover their error.
Can anyone help clarify the position regarding the overpaid amount?
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