Help With My Lease On Buy To Let Flat

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  • JK0
    replied
    Oh, well if the guy downstairs won't let you sublet, you can tell him not to also.

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  • hobbsie65
    replied
    Many thanks for all your knowledge in this - I really appreciate it.The flat has a 'cross over' freehold if that makes any difference with the owner of the maisonette downstairs (who also rents his flat). This was the beginning of the lease - I hid the name but do not know who she is/was.

    THIS LEASE is made BETWEEN (1) The Lessor meaning LAING london NW7 2ER and (2) the Lessee meaning MARY xxxxxx xxxxxx Street Kennington London SEll,'.
    In this Lease (unless the context otherwise requires):-
    (i) "THE LESSOR" includes the person for the time being entitled to the reversion immediately expectant upon the determination of the term hereby created and "THE LESSEE" includes the persons in whom the said term is from time to time vested and whenever a covenanting party shall include more than one person then that party's covenants shall be deemed to be joint and several

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  • leaseholdanswers
    replied
    hobbsie65

    In the lease is there any reference to Lessee other than the extract above?

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  • leaseholdanswers
    replied
    Originally posted by JK0 View Post
    Looks okay to me. A lessee is anyone in receipt of a lease, so I guess a tenancy agreement would count as that. Anyway, it says not to underlet within the last seven years without consent. Doesn't that imply that underletting outside the seven years does not require consent?
    JKO that's a nice tautology but the lessee is a party to the lease , not an under lease between the lessee and an underlessee.

    However the second part of the clause suggests that underletting can take place in the last seven years, which if underletting is barred, it seems odd that it is there. In respect of assignment its understandable, but it would suggest that underletting of the whole is permissible, but for the construction of lessee and lease.

    It's one for sloppy drafting and a toss up between the presumption in favour of the landlord or the intention of the parties in the construction.

    If the lessee is clearly identified in the lease as being the leaseholder, then only then can be the one "with a lease", not an under lessee ( renting tenant)



    What has happened is nearby is relevant as not all leases in the development are going to be necessarily the same, a fact lost on the OP ( as is most of the reply). What has happened in the past is also irrelevant as while the owner might seek waiver, the breach ends and starts over on assignment

    It may be that the freeholder takes no interest in enforcement or that if the maisonette is also being sold with an interest in the freehold or free holding owing company, neither they or their neighbour are going to enforce it.

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  • hobbsie65
    replied
    Many thanks - I am sure most leases have similar things included but it is all new to me !!

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  • JK0
    replied
    Originally posted by hobbsie65 View Post
    Hi,
    I hope you helpful people can help me. I recently bought a flat to rent but have seen this on the lease - does this mean I can not rent it ? Many thanks for any help.

    (i)Not to assign underlet or part with the possession of part only of the Premises but to use the flat or maisonette hereby demised as a single private residential dwelling only for the sole occupation of the entirety thereof by the Lessee and his family and members of his household and to use any garden area and parking space hereby demised respectively only as garden and for the parking of one private motor car subject to (if applicable) Clause 4(d) of this Lease and to use any other land hereby demised only for the purpose for which it has been provided
    (ii) Not during the last Seven years of the said term to assign underlet or part with the possession of the Premises without first obtaining the consent in writing of the Lessor such consent not to be unreasonably withheld
    Looks okay to me. A lessee is anyone in receipt of a lease, so I guess a tenancy agreement would count as that. Anyway, it says not to underlet within the last seven years without consent. Doesn't that imply that underletting outside the seven years does not require consent?

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  • hobbsie65
    replied
    The flat has been rented through an agency for 16 years (no problems) as is the bottom maisonette and about 60% of the flats in the same development which are all the same and built at the same time by the same developer. I was there this morning and counted 5 'to let' signs and another 5 'let by' signs so I think an awful lot of solicitors have not done there job properly if the above post is correct - I know of at least 5 which have changed hands in the last 2 years.

    Leave a comment:


  • leaseholdanswers
    replied
    In short the lease is quite clear.

    Ignore ii

    As to i its two parts

    1: Not to assign underlet or part with the possession of part only of the Premises

    2: but to use the flat or maisonette hereby demised as a single private residential dwelling only for the sole occupation of the entirety thereof by the Lessee and his family and members of his household

    Therefore 2 applies to your lease especially that bit underlined.

    If the solicitor knew that you intended to underlet then this is a big miss.

    Mortgagees consent is irrelevant they rarely look at the lease and at best ask for landlords consent. Other flats may be on different leases therefore you are taking a chance underletting that the landlords will enforce the terms of the lease.

    In such cases where some one takes a chance I have seen them underlet on tenancies with a break clause after 6 months, scrutinise the tenants closely, and keep in contact with them over any post that may come addressed to them, and diarise service charge and ground rent due dates to ensure they aren't missed ( if your LL/ agent doesnt have on-line billing or SO facilities) leave a stock of stamped addressed envelopes to forward any post etc.

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  • hobbsie65
    replied
    Many thanks. 60% of the properties are rented and I can not see where it says "Not to sub-let the whole" only "Part". The previous owner had permission from her mortgage company to rent it so I would have thought they would have checked it.

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  • ram
    replied
    Originally posted by hobbsie65 View Post
    (i)Not to assign underlet of part only of the Premises
    Use the flat as a single private residential dwelling only for the sole
    occupation
    of the entirety thereof by the Lessee and his family
    Looks like you cannot sublet "PART" of the premises.
    See if there is another part in your lease which states "Not to assign underlet the Whole for which permission cannot be resonably refused"

    Some say that if there is no reference to "Not to sub-let the whole", then you CAN sublet the whole.

    Read your lease from front to back, as not all similar items are in the same
    place.
    But "the Part", and "the whole" are usualy next to each other.

    If non joy with your lease, ask the freeholder or Managing agent what the
    rules are on sub-letting.

    R.a.M.

    Leave a comment:


  • Gordon999
    replied
    What advice ( about letting out ) did you get from your conveyancing solicitor ?

    There must be another clause in your lease about payment for registration of notice of transfer - what is the exact wording ?

    Leave a comment:


  • hobbsie65
    started a topic Help With My Lease On Buy To Let Flat

    Help With My Lease On Buy To Let Flat

    Hi,
    I hope you helpful people can help me. I recently bought a flat to rent but have seen this on the lease - does this mean I can not rent it ? Many thanks for any help.

    (i)Not to assign underlet or part with the possession of part only of the Premises but to use the flat or maisonette hereby demised as a single private residential dwelling only for the sole occupation of the entirety thereof by the Lessee and his family and members of his household and to use any garden area and parking space hereby demised respectively only as garden and for the parking of one private motor car subject to (if applicable) Clause 4(d) of this Lease and to use any other land hereby demised only for the purpose for which it has been provided
    (ii) Not during the last Seven years of the said term to assign underlet or part with the possession of the Premises without first obtaining the consent in writing of the Lessor such consent not to be unreasonably withheld

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  • Water leak. Who's responsible
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  • Reply to S146 manipulation
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