Hi
I am the tenant of a long leasehold interest in a first floor apartment in a block of 20 apartments. The freehold interest is owned by a company the shares in which are equally (bar two flats) distributed between the leasehold owners (including me).
The flat has wooden flooring in the lounge, dining room and hallway. The two bedrooms are carpeted together with the stairs with tiled floors being laid in the kitchen and bathroom.
A tenant's covenant in the lease is "to keep the flat including the internal passages thereof substantially covered with carpets except that in the kitchen and bathroom all over cork or rubber or other suitable materials for avoiding transmission of noise may be used instead of carpets".
I purchased the flat back in 2006. I raised a question of my vendor who informed me that there had been no complaints about the noise since the floors were laid in 2002. I was also provided on purchase with a number of invoices in respect of the flooring which leads me to believe that the floors were probably laid between 2002 and 2004. The managing agents did not disclose any complaints or disputes or other relevant information in respect of the flat in replies to enquiries provided in 2006. The specification in respect of the flat produced in 2006 also clearly shows pictures of and refers to the wooden floors.
There were no issues at all raised in respect of the floors in my flat until 2009 when I looked to rent the flat out and the advert showed the wooden floors. The lady below then wrote to the managing agents complaining about the noise on a specific occasion when people had viewed the flat. She mentioned that she was not complaining about the noise generally just on that specific occasion and expressed concern as to the tenants given the clause in the lease.
There were no complaints mentioned to me whilst the tenant's were in occupation between 2009 and 2011. I have now moved back into the flat with my husband and 2 and half year old son and agreed with a purchaser to sell the flat.
The directors of the freehold company are now threatening to enforce the terms of the lease and "make" me put carpet down. I believe this is predominantly due to a different downstairs flat having serious problems with noise coming from an upstairs flat (where the stairs are not even carpeted) and the owners of the downstairs flats wanting to ensure that future purchasers of upstairs flats (there are only two storeys in the apartment block) do not install wooden floors and solve the problem with this other upstairs flat.
I obviously feel extremely annoyed about this given the fact that only yesterday it was actually said by the owners of the flat downstairs that they have a problem with the noise from this flat generally. I believe this is mainly due to "toddler"noise and feel that I am being victimised given that I will obviously have to mention this dispute to the purchaser who in the current market may be put off purchasing.
(a) is any claim for forfeiture (presumably that is the only formal action the landlord could take) likely to be successful given the circumstances?
(b) i have offered to lay large rugs in the offending rooms but have been told that it must be fully carpeted? Given the wording of the covenant can full carpeting be insisted upon?
Many thanks in advance for any responses.
I am the tenant of a long leasehold interest in a first floor apartment in a block of 20 apartments. The freehold interest is owned by a company the shares in which are equally (bar two flats) distributed between the leasehold owners (including me).
The flat has wooden flooring in the lounge, dining room and hallway. The two bedrooms are carpeted together with the stairs with tiled floors being laid in the kitchen and bathroom.
A tenant's covenant in the lease is "to keep the flat including the internal passages thereof substantially covered with carpets except that in the kitchen and bathroom all over cork or rubber or other suitable materials for avoiding transmission of noise may be used instead of carpets".
I purchased the flat back in 2006. I raised a question of my vendor who informed me that there had been no complaints about the noise since the floors were laid in 2002. I was also provided on purchase with a number of invoices in respect of the flooring which leads me to believe that the floors were probably laid between 2002 and 2004. The managing agents did not disclose any complaints or disputes or other relevant information in respect of the flat in replies to enquiries provided in 2006. The specification in respect of the flat produced in 2006 also clearly shows pictures of and refers to the wooden floors.
There were no issues at all raised in respect of the floors in my flat until 2009 when I looked to rent the flat out and the advert showed the wooden floors. The lady below then wrote to the managing agents complaining about the noise on a specific occasion when people had viewed the flat. She mentioned that she was not complaining about the noise generally just on that specific occasion and expressed concern as to the tenants given the clause in the lease.
There were no complaints mentioned to me whilst the tenant's were in occupation between 2009 and 2011. I have now moved back into the flat with my husband and 2 and half year old son and agreed with a purchaser to sell the flat.
The directors of the freehold company are now threatening to enforce the terms of the lease and "make" me put carpet down. I believe this is predominantly due to a different downstairs flat having serious problems with noise coming from an upstairs flat (where the stairs are not even carpeted) and the owners of the downstairs flats wanting to ensure that future purchasers of upstairs flats (there are only two storeys in the apartment block) do not install wooden floors and solve the problem with this other upstairs flat.
I obviously feel extremely annoyed about this given the fact that only yesterday it was actually said by the owners of the flat downstairs that they have a problem with the noise from this flat generally. I believe this is mainly due to "toddler"noise and feel that I am being victimised given that I will obviously have to mention this dispute to the purchaser who in the current market may be put off purchasing.
(a) is any claim for forfeiture (presumably that is the only formal action the landlord could take) likely to be successful given the circumstances?
(b) i have offered to lay large rugs in the offending rooms but have been told that it must be fully carpeted? Given the wording of the covenant can full carpeting be insisted upon?
Many thanks in advance for any responses.
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