Hi there,
I'm new to the forum and looking for advice on a sticky freehold situation.
I own a two-bed flat in a converted building with two one-beds. The lease states that a fair proportion is payable towards the service charge. However, there has been a running agreement of 38/31/31, my flat paying the more significant amount but with no written documentation to support the contribution.
Recently we bought the freehold of the building equally, and I'm questioning the split and suggesting maintenance from now on should be in line with the freehold purchase. Which, to me, makes sense. I'm being told by my colleagues the purchase of the freehold (33.33%) has no relevance and that I need to continue on the undocumented terms.
Does anyone here have any light to shed on this?
Many thanks
Stuart
I'm new to the forum and looking for advice on a sticky freehold situation.
I own a two-bed flat in a converted building with two one-beds. The lease states that a fair proportion is payable towards the service charge. However, there has been a running agreement of 38/31/31, my flat paying the more significant amount but with no written documentation to support the contribution.
Recently we bought the freehold of the building equally, and I'm questioning the split and suggesting maintenance from now on should be in line with the freehold purchase. Which, to me, makes sense. I'm being told by my colleagues the purchase of the freehold (33.33%) has no relevance and that I need to continue on the undocumented terms.
Does anyone here have any light to shed on this?
Many thanks
Stuart
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