Buying a share of freehold? (2 flats: 1 with lease, 1 without lease)

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    Buying a share of freehold? (2 flats: 1 with lease, 1 without lease)

    Could anyone who is familiar with the law about leaseholders obtaining a share of freehold offer any advice/comments about if they think I would be able to? I did another post yesterday related to a leasehold flat that I'm trying to buy, but this question is specifically about if I could obtain a share of the freehold after buying the flat. I think the answer is no but I'm new to this topic and not sure if I've understood the rules properly.

    The building has two flats in total - converted from a house in the late 80s. The lower flat (the one i want to buy), has a lease but the other flat is owned by the freeholder and doesn't have a lease. As far as I can tell from the info' in the lease, the current freeholder isn't the one who created the lease for the lower flat, so I assume that they bought the freehold and the upper flat which doesn't have a lease at some point after the 80s. I don't know if the freeholder has ever lived in either of the flats, but they currently rent out the upper flat which doesn't have a lease.

    This point which I read on the LEASE website makes me think that this building wouldn't qualify for obtaining a share of freehold: 'at least two-thirds of the flats must be owned by qualifying tenants.' Does that mean that both flats in the building would need to have leases in order for the lesees to buy the freehold (or more precisely, for the lower flat to buy half of the freehold from the current freeholder)?

    Another point also suggests that it's not a goer: 'It should be noted that where there are only two flats in the building, both flats of qualifying tenants must participate.' Well, I guess the upper flat can't be a qualifying tenant because it doesn't have a lease and is owned by the current freeholder, so does that mean that 100% of the leasehold flats qualify (i.e. the lower flat, as that's the only flat which has a lease), or does it mean that only 50% of the flats are qualifying tenants and therefore there is no right to acquire the freehold?

    Seems like the answer is no, but grateful if any of you could confirm one way or the other.

    To qualify for collective enfranchisement, the premises must contain two or more flats held by qualifying tenants. Therefore it's not an option for you in the situation you have described, as you would be the only qualifying tenant.


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