I'm involved in the management of a leasehold property. One of the flats in the property has been let on a room-by-room basis (with an HMO licence from the local council) - seemingly in breach of the lease wording.
However the leaseholder has now denied that he is letting on that basis. In a different email (which I initially thought he had mistyped, but perhaps not) he said that his only tenant is the letting agent...
On the face of it, this seems to suggest that he has sublet his whole flat to a letting agent; and that the letting agent has "sub-sublet" it out as individual rooms. I've never heard of an arrangement like that though. Is it possible?
Thanks.
However the leaseholder has now denied that he is letting on that basis. In a different email (which I initially thought he had mistyped, but perhaps not) he said that his only tenant is the letting agent...
On the face of it, this seems to suggest that he has sublet his whole flat to a letting agent; and that the letting agent has "sub-sublet" it out as individual rooms. I've never heard of an arrangement like that though. Is it possible?
Thanks.
Comment