I have a 125 year lease of a flat. Recently there was water ingress through the outside wall of the building to the interior of my kitchen wall. The lease states that it is the Landlord's responsibility to maintain and repair external walls and the structure of the building. A builder came to look at the wall and came to the conclusion that the water ingress has probably been caused by the fact that there was, at some stage in the past, an aperture in my kitchen wall, which was filled in when the building was redeveloped a few years ago (prior to my ownership). It appears that the developer didn't brick up the aperture, but simply boarded it up, as a result of which rain water is now seeping through the wall.
I relayed this to one of the directors of the management company, which is the freeholder of the building. He claims that any damage done to the interior of my flat is not the landlord's responsibility, even though I have pointed out to him that the builder has told me he will need to cut into and remove a section of my interior kitchen wall to analyse the cause of the leak. The director says he is prepared to authorise the payment of the structural element of the works only, ie the bricking up of the aperture, but not the making good of the internal kitchen wall. Is he correct? Surely I should not be required to pay for the internal works which are required because of the leak in the exterior wall?
Your views on this would be much appreciated.
I relayed this to one of the directors of the management company, which is the freeholder of the building. He claims that any damage done to the interior of my flat is not the landlord's responsibility, even though I have pointed out to him that the builder has told me he will need to cut into and remove a section of my interior kitchen wall to analyse the cause of the leak. The director says he is prepared to authorise the payment of the structural element of the works only, ie the bricking up of the aperture, but not the making good of the internal kitchen wall. Is he correct? Surely I should not be required to pay for the internal works which are required because of the leak in the exterior wall?
Your views on this would be much appreciated.
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