Interested to hear peoples take on the following scenario.
Say an agent chases up arrears from a tenant for the period they have been managing, and surprisingly the tenant decides to pay far more as he includes arrears from before the period that the agent was managing.
Should this be subject to the agreed management fee (eg. 10%) or is this nothing to do with the agent as they were not managing at that time?
Say an agent chases up arrears from a tenant for the period they have been managing, and surprisingly the tenant decides to pay far more as he includes arrears from before the period that the agent was managing.
Should this be subject to the agreed management fee (eg. 10%) or is this nothing to do with the agent as they were not managing at that time?
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