Hi,
I have a mortgage-free rental property, gross rental yield approx 6%.
I am a higher rate tax payer and the house is owned personally.
I plan to add significantly to my investment portfolio with long term aim of getting to 10+ properties and thus reduce my employed work.
I have begun considering setting up a SPV for this future property business but I have a few questions which I am struggling to find an answer to.
If I 'transfer' current property to new SPV, I am aware there will be SDLT costs of approx 4-5k but this sale will trigger a SDLT refund to approx 9k from recent purchase of new primary residence. Capital gains will be covered by annual allowance.
So my questions are:
1) As the property is mortgage-free, will the 'transfer'/sale & purchase by SPV be considered as a Director's Loan to the current market value of the property?
2) If yes, am I correct in saying that I could potentially withdraw the amount of that Directors loan tax-free from the SPV Inthe future as funds allow? Or how does it work?
3) If the SPV was to purchase the property through a new mortgage at say 75% LTV - would that 75% then go to me personally (like a equity release situation) and the 25% 'deposit' be considered a Director's Loan (as above)?? Or am I getting this completely wrong?
My reasons for considering the SPV route if more for the future investment properties in terms of Corporation tax and mortgage interest relief.
Any constructive feedback or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
I have a mortgage-free rental property, gross rental yield approx 6%.
I am a higher rate tax payer and the house is owned personally.
I plan to add significantly to my investment portfolio with long term aim of getting to 10+ properties and thus reduce my employed work.
I have begun considering setting up a SPV for this future property business but I have a few questions which I am struggling to find an answer to.
If I 'transfer' current property to new SPV, I am aware there will be SDLT costs of approx 4-5k but this sale will trigger a SDLT refund to approx 9k from recent purchase of new primary residence. Capital gains will be covered by annual allowance.
So my questions are:
1) As the property is mortgage-free, will the 'transfer'/sale & purchase by SPV be considered as a Director's Loan to the current market value of the property?
2) If yes, am I correct in saying that I could potentially withdraw the amount of that Directors loan tax-free from the SPV Inthe future as funds allow? Or how does it work?
3) If the SPV was to purchase the property through a new mortgage at say 75% LTV - would that 75% then go to me personally (like a equity release situation) and the 25% 'deposit' be considered a Director's Loan (as above)?? Or am I getting this completely wrong?
My reasons for considering the SPV route if more for the future investment properties in terms of Corporation tax and mortgage interest relief.
Any constructive feedback or suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
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