TR1 transfer of shared freehold advice really needed

[jammh]

I live in a Victorian conversion of 2 leasehold flats and we jointly own the freehold. The other owners are selling and I have received the TR1 form to sign. I went through the form last night and found some places it was not filled in correctly according to the Land Registry guidance, so I replied highlighting this to co-freeholders and their solicitors. Their response has raised some concerns and questions for me:

Who normally fills in the TR1 form, the buyer's or the vendor's solicitor?

I am both a transferor, along with the vendor, and one of the transferrees, along with the new buyer. There is no space on the forms I've been given for the buyer to sign and I've been told that they are counterpart forms where I sign this form with the vendors and the buyer alone signs a separate form. Can this be right? It sounds very odd to me, it was not done in this way when I bought my flat nor when the current other owners bought theirs. Is there any good reason to do this or any reason I should refuse to sign in this manner?

I asked to be provided with the form when the other parties have signed it so that I can take a copy for my records. I didn't ask for this when the current owner bought their flat and I never got a copy, I ended up having to buy one from the Land registry. I have been told that this is not possible as it's not 'the way it works'. Is this true?

I asked for the details of the buyer's solicitor but they have not provided these. Is it unreasonable for me to request this information?

When I compared the current form to that which I signed when I bought get my flat, on the old one there were a lot of restrictions listed to the implied covenants under the Law of Property Act 1986, which are not now included. I tried to get advice from some local conveyancing solicitors but they all seem to only be interested in doing full conveyancing and will not offer ad hoc advice on any basis. If I post the wording of these restrictions would someone be able to tell me a) what they mean in laymans terms, b) for whose benefit they were included previously?

I am feeling like I probably do need to engage a solicitor if I can find one willing, however I do not feel like it is right that I should incur cost when I am not the one selling my flat. Does anyone have any views or advice on this?

[jammh]

Further to the above, the additional information in the old TR1 was as follows:
"Section 2(1)(b) of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 shall apply as if the word "at his own cost" had been deleted and substituted by the words "at the cost of the person to whom the disposition is made"

The covenant implied by section 3(1) of the the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 shall not extent to any charge encumbrance right covenant or other matter created before the Transferor acquired the property and shall apply as if the words "and could not reasonably be expected to" had been deleted.

For the purposes of Section 6(2)(a) of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 all matter recorded in registers open to public inspection are deemed to to be within the actual knowledge of the Transferee

The Transferee hereby covenants with the Transferor to pau the rents and observe and perform the covenants contained in the Lease registered against the above title and to indemnify the Transferor against any breach thereof

The Transferor shall not be liable under the covenant implied by Section 4 of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 for any breach of the terms of the Lease concerning the state and condition of the Property and the Registrar is requested to note such modification of the Register.

This Transfer may be executed in any number of parts each of which when executed and delivered shall be an original and all the parts together shall constitute one and the same instrument."

It's all a bit legalese to me, but seems to be to the benefit of the Transferor. Should I care about this as I am not the vendor on this occasion - although I am both a Transferor and a Transferee?

Thanks

[Lawcruncher]

Section 2(1)(b) of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 shall apply as if the word "at his own cost" had been deleted and substituted by the words "at the cost of the person to whom the disposition is made

The covenant implied by section 3(1) of the the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 shall not extent to any charge encumbrance right covenant or other matter created before the Transferor acquired the property and shall apply as if the words "and could not reasonably be expected to" had been deleted.

For the purposes of Section 6(2)(a) of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 all matter recorded in registers open to public inspection are deemed to to be within the actual knowledge of the Transferee

None of the above are necessary when the TR1 is made to transfer the freehold on the occasion of one leaseholder replacing another.

The Transferee hereby covenants with the Transferor to pau the rents and observe and perform the covenants contained in the Lease registered against the above title and to indemnify the Transferor against any breach thereof

The Transferor shall not be liable under the covenant implied by Section 4 of the Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1994 for any breach of the terms of the Lease concerning the state and condition of the Property and the Registrar is requested to note such modification of the Register.

The above only apply on a transfer of leasehold property.

This Transfer may be executed in any number of parts each of which when executed and delivered shall be an original and all the parts together shall constitute one and the same instrument.

That is needed if the transfer is prepared with different parties signing each part. That is a bit unsual, but possible. It is probably done to avoid re-execution if one the signatories loses the transfer after others have signed.

A TR1 (whether a single document or in parts) must be signed by all the transferors. The transferees need to sign it if they are covenanting with the transferor or the transferor contains a declaration. If a person is both transferor and transferee he only needs to sign once. If the transferees need to sign I think you are entitled to expect at least a certified copy of the part signed by the transferee. Have you sent it back yet?

[jammh]

Thank you for your clear advice on the bits from the old Tr1.
I have not sent it back because it listed the intended address of the transferees (ie myself and the new owner of the other flat) as that flat's address and I do not intend to live in their flat with them (!) so have asked for this to be amended.
Forgive my ignorance but is a certified copy something I would be asking for before I sign, or does that not happen until all parties have signed?

[Lawcruncher]

Forgive my ignorance but is a certified copy something I would be asking for before I sign, or does that not happen until all parties have signed?

It needs to be a copy of the completed document.

Have you seen my private message?