I am seriously considering buying a house which has the following restrictive covenant from a 1937 conveyance (which would be around the time that the house was built):
"That no building of any kind other than a private dwellinghouse with appropriate outoffices and outbuildings to be appurtenant thereto and occupied therewith shall be erected or used upon the property hereby sold."
Would this restrictive covenant stop me from letting the house as an HMO on a bedroom-by-bedroom basis? And even the covenant it were never enforced, would a lender refuse to lend on the property as an HMO due to this covenant?
I am aware that the judgement in Roberts v Howlett [2002] 1 P&CR 19 stated that the term "single private dwellinghouse" included an HMO let to a pre-formed group of friends, but implies that an HMO let bedroom-by-bedroom basis would not necessarily be included. However, the covenant I am looking at omits the word "single" which could potentially allow its definition to be drawn slightly more widely. Is there any case law on this point?
I have no idea who the current beneficiary of the restrictive covenant is (if any). I know that buyers would often obtain an indemnity policy in this situation to be on the safe side, but I don't think this is possible until the covenant has been in breach for at least a year (which isn't the case here).
Any ideas? Should this be a deal-breaker?
"That no building of any kind other than a private dwellinghouse with appropriate outoffices and outbuildings to be appurtenant thereto and occupied therewith shall be erected or used upon the property hereby sold."
Would this restrictive covenant stop me from letting the house as an HMO on a bedroom-by-bedroom basis? And even the covenant it were never enforced, would a lender refuse to lend on the property as an HMO due to this covenant?
I am aware that the judgement in Roberts v Howlett [2002] 1 P&CR 19 stated that the term "single private dwellinghouse" included an HMO let to a pre-formed group of friends, but implies that an HMO let bedroom-by-bedroom basis would not necessarily be included. However, the covenant I am looking at omits the word "single" which could potentially allow its definition to be drawn slightly more widely. Is there any case law on this point?
I have no idea who the current beneficiary of the restrictive covenant is (if any). I know that buyers would often obtain an indemnity policy in this situation to be on the safe side, but I don't think this is possible until the covenant has been in breach for at least a year (which isn't the case here).
Any ideas? Should this be a deal-breaker?
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