I own a flat which has an unexpired lease. I am in the process of remortgaging the flat. I received a mortgage offer from a lender. However, I had only nineteen years left on my lease; The lender requires all properties on which it lends, to have a minimum of twenty years remaining on the lease.
The lender's offer was therefore, subject to me having the lease on my flat extended. I contacted the solicitors acting on behalf of the owners of the freehold, and began the process of extending the lease as per the requirement of the lender.
However, the new mortgage is a BTL (buy-to-let) mortgage, (the current mortgage being a straight forward residential mortgage) - and there is a clause in the lease that specifies that the property can only be let for three years in any contiguous four year period. I'm not sure what the motivation for this clause is, as my next door neighbour for instance has let his flat out since the very early 2000's, and many of the flats in the building are not owner occupied - for several years. The lender has asked the wording of the that clause in the lease specifying a three year limit to be removed (or changed).
I have the following questions:
The lender's offer was therefore, subject to me having the lease on my flat extended. I contacted the solicitors acting on behalf of the owners of the freehold, and began the process of extending the lease as per the requirement of the lender.
However, the new mortgage is a BTL (buy-to-let) mortgage, (the current mortgage being a straight forward residential mortgage) - and there is a clause in the lease that specifies that the property can only be let for three years in any contiguous four year period. I'm not sure what the motivation for this clause is, as my next door neighbour for instance has let his flat out since the very early 2000's, and many of the flats in the building are not owner occupied - for several years. The lender has asked the wording of the that clause in the lease specifying a three year limit to be removed (or changed).
I have the following questions:
- What is the likelihood that the solicitors acting on behalf of the freehold, can change the wording to suit the lender - given that s good proportion of the flats in the building are tenanted (and have been so for numerous years exceeding the stipulated four)?
- In the (hopefully unlikely) event that this is indeed an impasse, I will have to make another mortgage application after the lease has been extended. Am I correct in assuming that this issue (where the owners of the freehold got involved), only arose because the lease had to be extended? If that is the case, then a backup strategy would be (in the event that we have come to an impasse), simply to complete the lease extension and then reapply after the lease has been extended. I would like clarification, if matters are as I have described above.
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